Mark 2:23-28
1. Why did Christ allow His disciples to pluck grain from another man’s field?
2. Why did the Pharisees not accuse the disciples of stealing another man’s crops?
3. If the plucking of grain was not stealing, why did the Pharisees claim the actions of the disciples were not lawful?
4. Why did Christ use the OT event of King David taking the ‘bread of the Presence’ from the tabernacle as His answer?
5. Why did Christ say this event occurred ‘in the time of Abiathar’ when 1st Samuel 21 says David went to Ahimelech, the high priest, to get the bread? Was Christ misquoting the OT? Or is this a biblical error? Or why is this neither?
6. Why does Christ refer to Himself as the ‘Son of Man?’
7. What is His point about being ‘lord even of the Sabbath?’
Sermon Notes
I. Man’s Word is